ThmDex – An index of mathematical definitions, results, and conjectures.
P1864
We understand both functions $I_E$ and $I_{f^{-1}(E)}$ as functions from $X$ to $\{ 0, 1 \}$. Since the domain and codomain sets are the same, it suffices to show that they attain the same values on $X$. Since the claim holds vacuously if $X$ is empty, we may further assume that $X$ is nonempty.

If $x \in X$, then one has the following chain of equivalencies \begin{equation} \begin{split} (I_E \circ f)(x) = I_E(f(x)) = 1 \quad & \iff \quad f(x) \in E \\ & \iff \quad x \in f^{-1}(E) \\ & \iff \quad I_{f^{-1}(E)}(x) = 1 \\ \end{split} \end{equation} The claim now follows from R5199: Indicator function on set is uniquely defined by its support. $\square$